ACLS Pre-Course Self-Assessment & Pre-Course Work
Section 1: Rhythm Identification
Third-degree atrioventricular block
Second-degree atrioventricular block (Mobitz I Wenckebach)
Ventricular fibrillation
Atrial flutter
Monomorphic ventricular tachycardia
Sinus bradycardia
Sinus tachycardia
Ventricular fibrillation
Atrial fibrillation
Supraventricular tachycardia
Agonal rhythm/ asystole
Ventricular fibrillation
Supraventricular tachycardia
Second-degree atrioventricular block (Mobitz II block)
*Patient has no pulse with this rhythm
Pulseless electrical activity
Second-degree atrioventricular block (Mobitz II block)
Normal sinus rhythm
Second-degree atrioventricular block (Mobitz I Wenckebach)
Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia
Section 2: Pharmacology
A 57-year-old woman has palpitations, chest discomfort, and tachycardia. The monitor shows a regular wide-complex QRS at a rate of 180/min. She becomes diaphoretic, and her blood pressure is 80/60 mm Hg. The next action is to:
Perform electrical cardioversion
You arrive on the scene with the code team. High-quality CPR is in progress. An AED has previously advised “no shock indicated.” A rhythm check now finds asystole. After resuming high-quality compressions, your next action is to:
Establish IV or IO access
A patient with STEMI has ongoing chest discomfort. Heparin 4000 units IV bolus and a heparin infusion of 1000 units per hour are being administered. The patient did not take aspirin because he has a history of gastritis, which was treated 5 years ago. What is your next action?
Give aspirin 162 to 325 mg to chew
A patient is in cardiac arrest. Ventricular fibrillation has been refractory to an initial shock. If no pathway for medication administration is in place, which method is preferred?
IV or IOA patient has sinus bradycardia with a heart rate of 36/min. Atropine has been administered to a total dose of 3 mg. A transcutaneous pacemaker has failed to capture. The patient is confused, and her blood pressure is 88/56 mm Hg. Which therapy is now indicated?
Epinephrine 2 to 10 mcg/min
A patient with possible STEMI has ongoing chest discomfort. What is a contraindication to nitrate administration?
Use of a phosphodiesterase inhibitor within the previous 24 hours.
A monitored patient in the ICU developed a sudden onset of narrow-complex tachycardia at a rate of 220/min. The patient's blood pressure is 128/58 mm Hg, the PETCO2 is 38 mm Hg, and the pulse oximetry reading is 98%. There is vascular access in the left arm, and the patient has not been given any vasoactive drugs. A 12-lead ECG confirms a supraventricular tachycardia with no evidence of ischemia or infarction. The heart rate has not responded to vagal maneuvers. What is your next action?
Administer adenosine 6 mg IV push
A patient is in cardiac arrest. Ventricular fibrillation has been refractory to a second shock. Which drug should be administered first?
Epinephrine 1 mg IV/IO
A patient is in cardiac arrest. High-quality chest compressions are being given. The patient is intubated, and an IV has been started. The rhythm is asystole. What is the first drug/dose to administer?
Epinephrine 1 mg IV/IO
A patient is in pulseless ventricular tachycardia. Two shocks and 1 dose of epinephrine have been given. Which drug should be given next?
Amiodarone 300 mg
A patient with sinus bradycardia and a heart rate of 42/min has diaphoresis and a blood pressure of 80/60 mm Hg. What is the initial dose of atropine?
1 mg
What is the indication for the use of magnesium in cardiac arrest?
Pulseless ventricular tachycardia-associated torsades de pointes
A 62-year-old man suddenly experienced difficulty speaking and left-sided weakness. He meets initial criteria for fibrinolytic therapy, and a CT scan of the brain is ordered. Which best describes the guidelines for antiplatelet and fibrinolytic therapy?
Hold aspirin for at least 24 hours if rtPA is administered
A patient is in refractory ventricular fibrillation and has received multiple appropriate defibrillation shocks, epinephrine 1 mg IV twice, and an intial dose of amiodarone 300 mg IV. The patient is intubated. Which best describes the recommended second dose of amiodarone for this patient?
150 mg IV push
In which situation does bradycardia require treatment?
Hypotension
A 35-year-old woman has palpitations, light-headedness, and a stable tachycardia. The monitor shows a regular narrow-complex QRS at a rate of 180/min. Vagal maneuvers have not been effective in terminating the rhythm. An IV has been established. What drug should be administered?
Adenosine 6 mg
A patient has a rapid irregular wide-complex tachycardia. The ventricular rate is 138/min. He is asymptomatic, with a blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg. He has a history of angina. What action is recommended next?
Seeking expert consultation
You are caring for a 66-year-old man with a history of a large intracerebral hemorrhage 2 months ago. He is being evaluated for another acute stroke. The CT scan is negative for hemorrhage. The patient is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min, and an IV has been established. His blood pressure is 180/100 mm Hg. Which drug do you anticipate giving this patient?
Aspirin
Which intervention is most appropriate for the treatment of a patient in asystole?
Epinephrine
A patient is in refractory ventricular fibrillation. High-quality CPR is in progress. One dose of epinephrine was given after the second shock. An antiarrhythmic drug was given immediately after the third shock. You are the team leader. Which medication do you order next?
Epinephrine 1 mg
Section 3: Practical application
A patient has been resuscitated from cardiac arrest. During post-ROSC treatment, the patient becomes unresponsive, with the rhythm shown (VTach). Which action is indicated next?
Give an immediate unsynchronized high-energy shock (defibrillation dose 200 J)
Your patient is a 56-year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes who reports feeling dizzy. She is pale and diaphoretic. Her blood pressure is 80/60 mm Hg. The cardiac monitor documents the rhythm shown here. She is receiving oxygen at 4L/min by nasal cannula, and an IV has been established. What do you administer next?
Atropine 1 mg IV
You arrive on the scene to find CPR in progress. Nursing staff report the patient was recovering from a pulmonary embolism and suddenly collapsed. Two shocks have been delivered, and an IV has been initiated. What do you administer now?
Epinephrine 1 mg IV
A patient becomes unresponsive. You are uncertain if a faint pulse is present. The rhythm shown here is seen on the cardiac monitor. An IV is in place. Which action do you take next?
Start high-quality CPR
You are providing bag-mask ventilations to a patient in respiratory arrest. How often should you provide ventilations?
Every 6 seconds
Which action should you take immediately after providing and AED shock?
Resume chest compressions
A patient was in refractory ventricular fibrillation. A third shock has just been administered. Your team looks to you for instructions. What is your next action?
Resume high-quality chest compressions
What is the maximum interval for pausing chest compressions?
10 seconds
A 35-year-old woman presents with a chief complaint of palpitations. She has no chest discomfort, shortness of breath, or light-headedness. Her blood pressure is 120/78 mm Hg. Which intervention is indicated first?
Vagal maneuvers
What action minimizes the risk of air entering the victim's stomach during bag-mask ventilation?
Ventilating until you see the chest rise
Your patient is not responsive and is not breathing. You can palpate a carotid pulse. Which action do you take next?
Start rescue breathing
What is the recommended depth of chest compressions for an adult victim?
At least 2 inches
A patients 12-lead ECG is transmitted by the paramedics and shows a STEMI. When the patient arrives in the emergency department, the rhythm shown here is seen on the cardiac monitor. The patient has resolution of moderate (5/10) chest pain after 3 doses of sublingual nitroglycerin. Blood pressure is 104/70 mm hg. Which intervention is most important in reducing this patient's in hospital and 30 day mortality rate?
Reperfusion therapy
What is the recommended compression rate for high-quality CPR?
100 - 120 compressions per minute
How often should you switch chest compressors to avoid fatigue?
About every two mins
Which action is likely to cause air to enter the victims stomach (gastric inflation) during bag-mask ventilation?
Ventilating too quickly
How does complete chest recoil contribute to effective CPR?
Allows maximum blood return to the heart
A 45-year-old woman with a history of palpitations develops light headedness and palpitations. She has recieved adenosine 6 mg IV for the rhythm shown here, without conversion of the rhythm. She is now extremely apprehensive. Her blood pressure is 128/70 mm Hg. What is the next appropriate intervention?
Administer adenosine 12 mg IV
After initiation of CPR and 1 shock for ventricular fibrillation, this rhythm is present on the next rhythm check. A second shock is given, and chest compressions are resumed. immediately. AN IV is in place, and no drugs have been given. Bag-mask ventilations are producing visible chest rise. What is your next inteverntion?
Give epinephrine 1 mg IV/IO
You are the code team leader and arrive to find a patient with CPR in progress. On the next rhythm check, you see the rhythm shown here. Team members tell you that the patient was well but reported chest discomfort and then collapsed. She has no pulse or respiration. Bag-mask ventilation are producing visible chest rise, and IO access has been established. Which intervention would be your next action?
Epinephrine 1 mg
Precourse Work
Which quality improvement component of systems of care best describes the capture and review of data related to resuscitation education, processes, and outcomes?
Measurement
Which one of the following is an interdependent component of systems of care?
Structure
What is an effect of excessive ventilation?
Decreased cardiac output
What is the recommended next step after a defibrillation attempt?
Resume CPR, starting with chest compressions
Which is the max interval you should allow for an interruption in chest compressions
10 seconds
How does complete chest recoil contribute to effective CPR?
Allows maximum blood return to the heart
What is an advantage of a systematic approach to patient assessment?
Reduces the changes of missing important signs and symptoms
What is the first step in the systematic approach to patient assesssment?
Initial impression
Which action is part of the secondary assessment of a conscious patient?
Formulate a differential diagnosis
Which is one of the H's and T's that represent a potentially reversible cause of cardiac arrest and other emergency cardiopulmonary conditions?
Hypothermia
What should be the primary focus of the CPR Coach on a resuscitation team?
To ensure high quality CPR
The CPR Coach Role can be blended into which of the following roles?
The monitor/defibrillator
Which of the following is a responsibility of the CPR coach?
Coordinating compressor switches
What is the recommended compression rate for high-quality CPR?
100-120 compressions per minute
Which best describes the length of time it should take to perform a pulse check during the BLS assessment?
5-10 seconds
Which is a component of high-quality CPR?
Depth of a least 2 inches
Which component of high-quality CPR directly affects chest compression fraction?
Interruptions
To properly ventilate a patient with a perfusing rhythm, how often do you squeeze the bag?
Once every 6 seconds
Which is an acceptable method of selecting an appropriately sized oropharyngeal airway?
Measure from the corner of the mouth to the angle of the mandible
Which action is likely to cause air to enter the victim's stomach (gastric inflation), during bag-mask ventilation?
Ventilating to quickly
In addition to clinical assessment, which is the most reliable method to confirm and monitor correct placement of an endotracheal tube?
Continuous waveform capnography
What are the 3 signs of clinical deterioration that would cause activation of a rapid response system?
Symptomatic hypertension, unexplained agitation, and seizure
What is the purpose of a rapid response team (RRT) or medical emergency team (MET)?
Identify and treat early clinical deterioration
What is the difference between stable angina and unstable angina?
Stable angina involved chest discomfort during exertion.
What is a classic symptom of acute ischemic chest discomfort?
Pain radiation down the left arm
What is the most common symptom of myocardial ischemia and infarction?
Retrosternal chest pain
What is one goal of therapy for patients with ACS?
Relief of ischemic chest discomfort
What is the recommended dose of aspirin if not contraindicated?
162-325 mg
Which is a contraindication to the administration of aspirin for the management of a patient with ACS?
Recent GI Bleed
What is the initial drug therapy for ACS?
Oxygen if needed, aspirin, nitroglycerin, morphine
A patient without dyspnea has sign an ACS. There are no obvious signs of heart failure. You assess a noninvasively monitored oxyhemoglobin saturation. Which patient should receive supplemental oxygen?
88%
Which clinical finding represents a contraindication to the administration of nitroglycerin?
Systolic BP of 84
What is one major sign of a patient having a stroke?
Facial droop
What are the major types of strokes?
Ischemic and hemorrhagic
What is the most common type of stroke?
Ischemic
What stroke screen was used in the stroke video?
CPSS
Which is a sign or symptom of a stroke
Trouble speaking
Why is it important for EMS personnel to alert the receiving facility stroke team as soon as possible?
Reduce the time interval to definitive care
What is the highest priority once the patient has reached the emergency department?
CT Scan
What is the goal for neurologic assessment by the team or designee and non-contrast CT or MRI performed after hospital arrival?
20 minutes
What is the primary window for the administration of fibrinolytic therapy, timed from the onset of symptoms
3 hours
In which situation does bradycardia require treatment?
Hypotension
A patient in stable narrow-complex tachycardia with a peripheral IV in place is refractory to the first dose of adenosine. Which dose would you administer next?
12 mg
A 57- year old women has palpitations, chest discomfort, and tachycardia. The monitor shows a regular wide-complex QRS at a rate of 180. She becomes diaphoretic and her blood pressure is 80/66. What should you do?
Perform electrical cardioversion
A patient is in cardiac arrest Ventricular fibrillation has been refractory to a second shock. Which drug should be administered first?
Epinephrine 1 mg IV/IO
A patient is in pulseless Ventricular tachycardia. Two shocks and 1 dose of epinephrine have been given. Which drug should be
Amiodarone 300 mg
A patient has been resuscitated from cardiac arrest. During post ROSC treatment, the patient becomes unresponsive, with a polymorphic ventricular tachycardia on the monitor. Which action is indicated?
Give an immediate unsynchronized high-energy shock (defibrillation dose)
What is the recommended range from which a temperature should be selected and maintained constantly to achieve targeted temperature management after cardiac arrest?
32-36 degrees C
During post-cardiac arrest care, which is the recommended duration of targeted temperature management after reaching the correct temperature range?
At least 24 hours
ACLS Online Exam
Which type of atrioventricular block best describes this rhythm?
Second degree type II
Your patient is in cardiac arrest and has been intubated. To assess CPR quality, which should you do?
Monitor the patient's PetCO2
Which facility is the most appropriate EMS destination for a patient with sudden cardiac arrest who achieved return of spontaneous circulation in the fleld?
Coronary reperfusion-capable medical center
Which of the following signs is a likely indicator of cardiac arrest in an unresponsive patient?
Agonal gasps
Which type of atrioventricular block best describes this rhythm?
Second-degroe atrioventricular block type I
To property ventilate a patient with a perfusing rhythm, how often do you squeeze the bag?
Once avery 5 to 6 seconds
In addition to clinical assessment, which is the most reliable method to confirm and monitor correct placement of an endotracheal tube?
Continuous waveform capnography
You are caring for a patient with a suspected stroke whose symptoms started 2 hours ago. The CT scan was normal, with no signs of hemorrhage. The patient does not have any contraindications to fibrinolytic therapy. Which treatment approach is best for this patient?
Start fibrinolytic therapy as soon as possible
Which best describes this rhythm?
Third-degree atrioventricular block
What is the recommended range from which a temperature should be selected and maintained constantly to achieve targeted temperature management after cardiac arrest?
32 C to 36 C
Which is the recommended first intravenous dose of amiodarone for a patient with refractory ventricular fibrillation?
300 mg
Which is the primary purpose of a medical emergency team or rapid response team?
Improving patient outcomes by identifying and treating early clinical deterioration
Which is the recommended next step after a defibrillation attempt?
Resume CPR, starting with chest compressions
EMS providers are treating a patient with suspected stroke. According to the Adult Suspected Stroke Algorithm, which critical action performed by the EMS team will expedite this patient's care on arrival and reduce the time to treatment?
Alert the hospital access
A responder is caring for a patient with a history of congestive heart failure. The patient is experiencing shortness of breath, a blood pressure of 68/50 mm Hg, and a heart rate of 190/min. The patent's lead il ECG is displayed here. Which best characterizes this patient's rhythm?
Unstable supraventricular tachycardia
Check the patients breathing and pulse
Which best describes the length of time it should take to perform a pulse check during the BLS Assessment?
5-10 seconds
You Instruct a tean member to give 0.5 mg atropine IV. Which response is an example of closed loop communication?
Ill draw up 0.5 mg of atropine
What is an effect of excessive ventlation?
Decreased cardiac output
If a team member is about to make a mistake during a resuscitation atternpt which best describes the action that the team leader or other team members should take?
Address the team member immediately
Which best descrbes this rhythm?
A Monomorphic ventricular tachycardia
90 minutes
Which is the maximum interval you should allow for an internuption in chest compressions?
10 seconds
Which is one way to minimize interruptions in chest compressione during CPR?
Continue CPR while the defibrilator charges
Which best describes an action taken by the team leader to avold inelficiencies during a resuscitation attempt?
Clearly delegate tasks
Which is an acceptable melthod of selecting an appropriately sized oropharyngeal ainway?
Measure from the coner of the mouth to the angle of the mandible
You are evauating a 58-year-old man with chest discomort. His blood pressure is 92/50 mm Hg his breath/min and his pulse oximetry reading is 97% heart rate is 92 in his nonlabored reapiratory rate is 14. Which assessment step is most important now?
Obtaining a 12 lead ECG
A patient in respiratory distress and with a blood pressure of 70/50 mm Hg presents with the lead ECG II shown here. Which is the appropriat treament?
Performing synchronized cardioversion
During post-cardac arrest cere, which is the recommended duration of targeted temperature management after reaching the corect temperature range?
Al least 24 hours
Three minutes into a cardiac arrest resusiation atternpt one member of your team inserts an endotracheal fube while another performs chest compressions. Capnography shows a persistont wavefom and a PETCOs of 8mm Hg Which is the significance of this finding?
Chest compressions may not be effective
Which is the recommended oral dose of aspirin for a patient with a suspected acute coronary syndrome?
160 mg to 325 mg
A team member is unable to perform an assigned task because it is beyond the team member's scope of practice. Which action shoudd the team member take?
Ask for a new task or role
As the team leader, when do you tell the chest compressors to switch?
About every 2 minutes
You are performing chest compressions during an adult resuscitation attempt. Which rate should you Use to perform the compressions?
100-120/min
A patient is being rosuscitated in a very noisy environment. A team momber thinks he heard an order for 500 mg of amiodarone IV. Which is the best response from the team member?
I have an order to give 500 mg of amiodarone IV. Is this correct?
A patent in stable narrow-complex tachycardia with a peripheral IV in place is refractory to dose of adenosine. Which dose would you administer next?
12 mg
A patient has a witnessed loss of consciousness. The lead II ECG reveals this rhythm. Which is the appropriate treatment?
Defibrillation
Which of these tests should be performed for a patient with suspected stroke within 20 minutes of hospital arival?
Noncontrast CT scan of the head
What is the minimum systolic blood pressure one should attempt to achieve with fluild administration or vasoactive agents in a hypotensive post-cardiac arest patient who achieves return of spontaneous circulation?
90 mm Hg
You have completed 2 minutes of CPR. The ECG monitor displays the lead Il rhythem shown here, and the patient has no pulse. Another member of your team resumes chest comprossions, and an IV is in place Which do you do next?
Give epinephrine 1 mg IV
Based on this patient's initial presentation which condition do you suspect led to the cardiac arrest?
Acute coronary syndrome
Chest coompressions
Despite 2 defibriliation attempts, the pationt remains in ventricular fibrillation Which drug and dose should you administer first to this patient?
Epinephrine 1 mg
Despite the dnug provided above and continued CPR, the patient remains in ventricular fibrillation Which other drug should be administened next?
Amiodarone 300 mg
The patient has relurn of spontanoous cration and is not able to follow commandsWhich immedite post-cardiac amest care intervention do you choose for this patient?
Initiate targeted tomperture management
Which would you have done first if the patient had not gone into ventricular fibrillation?
Performed synchronized cardioversion
A 45-year-old man had coronary artery stents placed 2 days ago. Today, he is in severe distress and is reporting "crushing" chest discomfort. He is pale, diaphoretic, and cool to the touch. His radial pulse is very weak, blood pressure is 64/40 mm Hg, respiratory rate is 28 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation is 89% on room air. When applied, the cardiac monitor initially showed ventricular tachycardia, which then quickly changed to ventricular fibrillation.
Based on this patient's initial presentation, which condition do you suspect led to the cardiac arrest?
Acute coronary syndrome
In addition to defibrillation, which intervention should be performed immediately?
Chest compressions
Despite 2 defibrillation attempts, the patient remains in ventricular fibrillation. Which drug and dose should you administer first to this patient?
Epinephrine 1mg
Despite the drug provided above and continued CPR, the patient remains in ventricular fibrillation. Which otehr drug should be administer next?
Lidocaine 1 to 1.5 mg/Kg
The patient has return of spontaneous circulation and is not able to follow commands. Which immediate post-cardiac arrest care intervention do you choose for this patient?
Initiate targeted temperature management
Which would you have done first if the pateint had not gone into ventricular fibrillation?
Performed synchronized cardioversion
How can you increase chest compression fraction during a code?
Charge the defibrillator 15 seconds before conducting a rhythm check
A team member is unable to perform an assigned task because it is beyond the team member's scope of practice. Which action should the team member take?
Ask for a new task or role
In addition to clinical assessment, which is the most reliable method to confirm and monitor correct placement of an ET tube?
Continuous waveform capnography
Your patient is in cardiac arrest and has been intubated. To assess CPR quality, which should you do?
Monitor the patients Petco2
Three minutes into a cardiac arrest resuscitation attempt, one member of your team inserts an endotracheal tube while another performs chest compressions. Capnography shows a persistent waveform and a PETCO2 of 8 mm Hg. Which is the significance of this finding?
Chest compressions may not be effective
What is the minimum systolic blood pressure one should attempt to achieve with fluid administration or vasoactive agents in a hypotensive post-cardiac arrest patient who achieves return of spontaneous circulation?
90 mm Hg
What should be the primary focus of the CPR coach on a resuscitation team?
To ensure high-quality CPR
You instruct a team member to give 1.0 mg atropine IV. Which response is an example of closed-loop communication?
"I'll draw up 1.0 mg of atropine."
The patient's pulse oximeter shows a reading of 84% on room air. Which initial action do you take?
Apply oxygen
Heartcode - BLS
What is the preferred method for pulse check in an infant?
place 2 or 3 fingers on the inside of the upper arm, midway between the infant's elbow and shoulder
Recommended depth of compressions for an infant
1.5 inches (4cm)
What does a chest compression feedback device monitor?
compression rate, compression depth, chest recoil
You witness a child suddenly collapse on the playground. You are the only rescuer and you do not have a phone nearby. After confirming that the child is not breathing and there is no pulse, what is your next step?
leave the victim to activate the emergency response system and the AED
Adult chain of survival
1. early recognition and prevention
2. activation of emergency response
3. high quality cpr
4. defibrillation
5. post cardiac arrest care
6. recovery
when checking for a pulse, you should check for at least ___ but not longer than __
5 ; 10
Hand placement for adult and child chest compressions
2 hands on lower half of breastbone
steps to open the airway for breaths
1. place one hand on victim's forehead, and push with your palm to tilt the head back
2. place fingers of the other hand under the bony part of the lower jaw near the chin
3. lift the jaw to bring the chin forward
where do you stand when putting on a victims pocket mask?
on their side
2 life-threatening arrhythmias that can cause cardiac arrest
pulseless ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation
What is an AED?
Device that analyzes the heart rhythm to identify. the presence of an arrhythmia that can be corrected by shock
Steps of using an AED
1. power on
2. choose adult pads for victims 8 years or older
3. when prompted by AED, clear the victim and allow AED to analyze
4. deliver shock if needed, if no shock needed resume cpr started with compressions
adult AED pads are used for victims how old
8 years and older
anterolateral placement
one pad directly below right collarbone - other pad to side of left nipple( with top edge few inches below armpit
anteroposterior placement
one pad in center of chest and other on center of victims back
or
one pad on left side of chest (between breastbone and nipple) and other on left side of victims back
if there is no normal breathing and pulse not felt in an adult
star cpr - perform cycles of 30 compressions and 2 breaths
pediatric chain of survival
1. early recognition and prevention
2. activation of emergency response
3. high quality cpr
4. advanced resuscitation
5. post cardiac arrest care
6. recovery
checking pulse in an infant occurs where?
brachial artery pulse
checking pulse in a child occurs where?
carotid or femoral
hand placement for infant chest compressions
1 rescuer: 2 fingers in center of chest just below nipple line
2 rescuers: 2 thumb encricling hands technique
compression to ventilation ratio for infants and children
1 rescuer: 30:2
2 rescuer: 15:2
What are the correct actions to take for scene safety and assessment?
-Verify scene safety
-Look for no breathing and only gasping and check pulse
-Check for responsiveness
-Activate the emergency response system and get an AED
-Begin CPR if no breathing or no gasping and no pulse felt
A bag-mask device is used to provide____to a victim who is not breathing or not breathing normally.
positive-pressure ventilation
How are breaths delivered using a bag-mask device?
1 breath over 1 second, while watching for chest rise
How do you open the airway for breaths if a single rescuer is present?
Head tilt-chin lift
After positioning yourself directly above the victim's head, what is the correct order of steps for using a bag-mask device?
1. Place the mask on the victim's face, using the bridge of the nose as a guide for the correct position.
2. Use the E-C clamp techinque to hold the maks in place while you life the jaw to hold the airway open
3. Squeeze the bad to give breaths (1 second each) while watching for chest rise
When should the rescuer operating the AED clear the victim?
During analysis and before shock delivery
During CPR on a child, you should place 1 or 2 hands over the ______ of the _____
Lower half; breastbone
When performing chest compressions for an infant, you can use 2 thumbs or put 2 _____ in the center of the chest, just below the _____ line.
fingers; nipple
When performing chest compressions for an infant in a 2-rescuer situation, you should put 2 _____ in the center of the chest, on the lower half of the breastbone.
thumbs
What is a correct approach for AED pad placement for infants and children learn than 8 years of age?
as indicated on the pad packages
After turning on the AED, you follow the prompts. You know to use child pads for infants and for children younger than 8 years, but the pediatric pads are unaviable. What should you do next?
use the adult pads
The infant is not breathing normally but has a pulse. What do you need to do?
provide rescue breaths, with 1 breath every 2 or 3 seconds
You check the infant's pulse every 2 minutes and detect that the heart rate is less than 60 /min with signs of poor perfusion. While your colleague begins CPR, what action do you need to take?
power on the AED, follow the prompts, and use the child pads
Which team role keeps track of interruptions in compressions?
timer/recorder
Which team role makes treatment decisions and assigns roles?
team leader
What are examples of effective team dynamics?
-clear roles and responsibilities
-knowledge sharing
-debriefing
-constructive intervention
Which of the following are resuscitation triangle roles in a high-performance team?
-AED/Monitor/Defibrillator
-Compressor
-Airway
While performing hig-quality CPR, when do pauses in compressions typically occur?
-intubation
-compressor switches
-defibrillation
-rhythm analysis
-pulse checks
Assess the patient and provides compressions
compressor
Operates the AED and alternates with the compressor after every 5 cycles or 2 minutes to avoid/farigue
monitor/defribillator
Provides ventilation
airway
assigning your team members to individual roles and outlining what each member needs to do during the resuscitation attempt is an example of what element of high-performance team dynamics?
clear roles and responsibilities
You and your team have initiated compressions and ventilation. The AED was attached, and "no shock" was advised. Your team has continued CPR for 1 minute. You tell your team in a respectful, clear, and calm voice " Leslie, during the next analysis by the AED, I want you and Justin to switch positions and I want you to perform compressions for the next cycle" Lesli replies, " Got it. Next time the AED analyzes, I will switch with Justin and assume the role of the compressor." This is an example of which element of high-performance team dynamics?
closed-loop communication
as team leader you notice that your compressor is pushing too fast. It is important to correct actions that are incorrect, but it is also important to be tactful when delivering this correction to a colleague. This is an example of what element of team dynamics?
constructive intervention
What action can you take as a team during and after a resuscitation attempt that helps individual team members perform better and brings awareness to system strengths and deficiencies?
debriefing
Your friend suddenly collapses at home and you determine she needs CPR. You being CPR starting with chest compressions and are about to deliver breaths by using mouth to mouth breaths. You open the airway with the head tilt-Chin lift. what is the sequence of your next position?
-pinch the nose and seal your lips around the victim's mouth
-give one breath and blow for one second
-watch for chest rise while giving the breath
-give a second breath (blowing from about one second watching for chest rise)
What is the indication for mouth-to mouth- rescue breaths
when a barrier device is not aviable
how can you achieve a high chest compression fraction/
minimize pause in chest compression
how is CPR performed differently when an advanced airway is in place
no pauses for ventilations
what is the correct sequence of actions for performing mouth to mouth and nose breaths for an infant
1. perform a head tilt-chin lift
2. place your mouth over the infant's mouth and nose to create an airtight seal
3. give on breath, blowing for one second, watching for chest rise
when providing rescue breaths to a child or infant victim you should give 1 breath every ___ to ___ seconds
2;3
what are common administration routes for naloxone?
intramuscular
intravenous
intranasal
if a chocking victim is too large for you to wrap your arms around the waist, you should perform ____thrusts
chest
What is the sing ofo sever airway obstruction
inability to speak
when performing abdominal thrusts in adults and children, in which direction should your thrusts be directed
upward
how does CPR differ in an unresponsive adult chocking vicitm?
the airway is checked for the obstructing object
You should deliver ___ back slaps and ___ chest thrusts to a chocking infant who is responsive
5;5
you respond to a collapsed pregnant female as the only rescuer. you follow the BLS sequence that she is unresponsive, is not breathing, and has no pulse. she is visibly pregnant. you activate the emergency response system. What is your next action?
begin chest compressions
what are the special considerations when using an AED
water
excessive chest hair
implanted defibrillators/pacemakers
transdermal medicine patches
